Analysis of RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim exam held 7th Dec 2025 (Shift 1)

In this write-up, we present the Analysis of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary exam, which was held in Shift 1 on 7th Dec 2025.

A snapshot of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary Exam is provided below.

Test Area	No. of Questions	Duration
Numerical Ability	40	20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability	40	25 Minutes
Total	80	45 Minutes

Students have reported that the online RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim examination was easy.

An analysis of the session mentioned above, as reported by our students, is given below.

The order of sections is Reasoning Ability followed by Numerical Ability.

Numerical Ability:

According to feedback from our students who took this exam, this section was rated easy.

There were ten questions on DI (five questions each on the Table and Line Graph). The questions on DI were easy. The Table contains details of the number of blue balls and green balls with five people. In the Line Graph, the information about the number of cars sold in five months is given.

There were fifteen questions on Simplifications. These questions were easy to solve.

There were five questions on the Wrong Number Series, and these questions were easy to solve.

The ten questions on Arithmetic were based on topics such as Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Simple and Compound Interest, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Mixtures & Alligations, and Mensuration. Students have informed us that these questions were a combo of easy and moderate ones. One needed a good command of fundamentals to attempt these questions successfully.

Topic	No of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation (Table and Line Graph)	10	Easy
Number Series (Wrong number)	5	Easy
Simplifications	15	Easy
Individual Quant Questions	10	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning Ability:

This section has been tagged as 'easy'.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles.

• Square Arrangement (eight persons, persons sitting at the corners facing inside and persons sitting in the middle facing outside)
• Box-based Puzzle (7 boxes)
• Day-based Puzzle (Six persons, Mon to Sat)
• Comparisons (Lengths of six pencils, A to F and the length of pencil B was given as 7 Cms)

The questions based on Puzzles can be labelled as easy in terms of difficulty level.

There were four questions on Syllogisms (Deductions), three questions on Inequalities (Symbols and Notations) and two questions on Direction Sense. In Syllogisms, the questions were based on two statements and two conclusions. The questions on Syllogisms, Direction Sense and Inequalities were easy.

Topic	No of Qs	Difficulty Level
Coding- Decoding	5	Easy
Set of words	5	Easy
Symbols Notations (Inequalities)	3
Direction Sense	2	Easy
Syllogisms (Deductions)	4	Easy
Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Letter Arrangement and Letter Odd one out)	3	Easy
Puzzles
Square Arrangement (eight persons, persons sitting at the corners facing inside and persons sitting in the middle are facing outside)	5	Easy
Box-based Puzzle (7 boxes)	5	Easy
Day-based Puzzle (Six persons, Mon to Sat)	5	Easy
Comparisons (Lengths of six pencils, A to F and the length of pencil B was given as 7 Cms)	3	Easy

There were five questions each on Coding-Decoding and a Set of words. These questions were easy to solve.

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Quantitative Aptitude – 30+

Reasoning – 35+

Analysis of RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim exam held 6th Dec 2025 (Shift 2)

In this write-up, we present the Analysis of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary exam, which was held in Shift 2 on 6th Dec 2025.

A snapshot of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary Exam is provided below.

Test Area	No. of Questions	Duration
Numerical Ability	40	20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability	40	25 Minutes
Total	80	45 Minutes

Students have reported that the online RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim examination was easy.

An analysis of the session mentioned above, as reported by our students, is given below.

The order of sections is Reasoning Ability followed by Numerical Ability.

Numerical Ability:

According to feedback from our students who took this exam, this section was rated easy.

There were ten questions on DI (five questions each on the Table and the Bar Graph). The questions on DI were easy. The Table contains the marks obtained in three subjects (Hindi, English and Maths) by five students. In the Bar Graph, the information on the number of students attending classes in online mode and offline mode in a school on four different days.

There were fifteen questions on Simplifications. These questions were easy to solve.

There were five questions on the Missing Number Series, out of which one question was time-consuming and the remaining were easy. One question was based on prime numbers starting from 17, one was based on double difference, and one was based on x 2, x 3, x 4.

The ten questions on Arithmetic were based on topics like Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Compound Interest, Boats and Streams, Time and Work, Mixtures & Alligations, and Mensuration. Students have informed us that these questions were a combination of easy and moderate ones. One needed a good command of fundamentals to attempt these questions successfully.

Topic	No of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph)	10	Easy
Number Series (Missing number)	5	Easy
Simplifications	15	Easy
Individual Quant Questions	10	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning Ability:

This section has been tagged as 'easy'.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles.

• Circular Arrangement (seven persons, all facing inside)
• Box-based puzzle (seven boxes)
• Month-based Puzzle (seven months)
• Unknown number of persons (Linear Arrangement, all facing North)

The questions based on Puzzles can be labelled as easy in terms of difficulty level.

There were four questions each on Syllogisms (Deductions), Inequalities (Symbols and Notations) and Sets of Numbers. In Syllogisms, there was one question on which of the following is definitely false. The questions contained three statements and two conclusions. These questions were easy to solve, whereas the three questions based on Blood Relations were moderate. There were five questions on Sequence, which were easy to solve.

Topic	No of Qs	Difficulty Level
Sequence	5	Easy
Set of Numbers	4	Easy
Symbols Notations (Inequalities)	4	Easy
Blood Relations	3	Moderate
Syllogisms (Deductions)	4	Easy
Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Number Arrangement)	2	Easy
Puzzles
Circular Arrangement (seven persons, all facing inside)	5	Easy
Box-based puzzle (seven boxes)	5	Easy
Month based puzzle (seven months)	5	Easy
Unknown number of persons (Linear Arrangement, all facing North)	3	Easy

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Quantitative Aptitude – 30+

Reasoning – 35+

Analysis of RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim exam held 6th Dec 2025 (Shift 1)

In this write-up, we present the Analysis of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary exam, which was held in Shift 1 on 6th Dec 2025.

A snapshot of the IBPS RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Preliminary Exam is provided below.

Test Area	No. of Questions	Duration
Numerical Ability	40	20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability	40	25 Minutes
Total	80	45 Minutes

Students have reported that the online RRB Clerk (Office Assistant) Prelim examination was easy.

An analysis of the session mentioned above, as reported by our students, is given below.

The order of sections is Reasoning Ability followed by Numerical Ability.

Numerical Ability:

According to feedback from our students who took this exam, this section was rated easy.

There were eleven questions on DI (six questions on the Table and five questions on the Bar Graph). The questions on DI were easy. The Table contains the details of Cars and Scooters sold in five different cities. In the Bar Graph, the information on the number of male workers in four companies is presented.

There were fifteen questions on Simplifications. These questions were easy to solve.

There were five questions on the Wrong Number Series, out of which one question was moderate and the remaining were easy.

The nine questions on Arithmetic were based on topics like Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Simple and Compound Interest, Time and Distance, Time and Work, Mixtures & Alligations, and Mensuration etc. Students have informed us that these questions were a combination of easy and moderate ones. One needed a good command of fundamentals to attempt these questions successfully.

Topic	No of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph)	11	Easy
Number Series (Wrong number)	5	Easy
Simplifications	15	Easy
Individual Quant Questions	9	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning Ability:

This section has been tagged as 'easy'.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles.

• Square Arrangement (eight persons, persons sitting at the corners facing inside and persons sitting in the middle facing outside)
• Designation-based Puzzle (7 Persons)
• Month and Date-based Puzzle (Six persons, Three months and two dates)
• Comparisons (Scores of six persons)

The questions based on Puzzles can be labelled as easy.

There were three questions each on Syllogisms (Deductions), Inequalities (Symbols and Notations) and Blood Relations. In Syllogisms, there was one question with two statements and two conclusions and two questions with three statements and two conclusions. The questions on Syllogisms and Inequalities were easy, whereas the questions based on Blood Relations were moderate. There were five questions each on Coding-Decoding and a Set of words. These questions were easy to solve.

Topic	No of Qs	Difficulty Level
Coding- Decoding	5	Easy
Set of words	5	Easy
Symbols Notations (Inequalities)	3
Blood Relations	3	Easy
Syllogisms (Deductions)	3	Easy
Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Letter Arrangement and Odd one out)	3	Easy
Puzzles
Square Arrangement (eight persons, persons sitting at the corners facing inside and persons sitting in the middle are facing outside)	5	Easy
Designation-based Puzzle (7 Persons)	5	Easy
Month and Date-based Puzzle (Six persons, Three months and two dates)	5	Easy
Comparisons (Scores of six persons)	3	Easy

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Quantitative Aptitude – 30+
Reasoning – 35+

Analysis of SBI Clerk 2025 Main Exam held on 21st November 2025 (Shift 1)

It has been reported that the online SBI Clerk 2025 Main examination (Shift 1), conducted on 21st November 2025, was moderate to difficult. The Quantitative Aptitude and General English sections were moderate to difficult, the Reasoning section was moderate, and the GA section ranged from easy to moderate.

The snapshot of the exam is given below:

S.No	Name of Test	No. of Qs	Max Marks	Duration
1	General / Financial Awareness	50	50	35 Minutes
2	General English	40	40	35 Minutes
3	Quantitative Aptitude	50	50	45 Minutes
4	Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude	50	60	45 Minutes
	TOTAL	190	200	2 Hours 40 Minutes

The sections appeared in the following order:

• General/Financial Awareness
• General English
• Quantitative Aptitude
• Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude

The analysis of the above-mentioned sessions, as reported by our students who appeared for this exam, is given below:

Quantitative Aptitude 

According to feedback, this section can be rated as moderate to difficult, as well as time-consuming.

Data Interpretation:

There were four sets of Data Interpretation. The total number of questions was twenty. The questions were moderately difficult and calculation-based.  

Table: Six questions. Moderate and calculation-based. Total shirts manufactured (Denim + Linen), Total shirts sold (Denim + Linen) and percentage of Denim shirts sold.

Bar Graph: Six questions. Moderate to difficult. The average number of participants from two schools, A and B, on five days was presented in the bar graph.

Line Graph: Four questions. Moderate and calculation-based. The population of four cities (A, B, C, D) in the years 2023 and 2024 were shown in the line graph.

Caselet: Four questions. Moderate to difficult and calculation-based. The details of the total students, number of boys, and number of girls were presented. Some data was also presented in the form of variables.

Individual Quant Questions

The questions asked were based on topics such as Ages, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple and Compound Interest, Time and Distance (Trains), Time and Work, Mensuration, Probability, Averages and Mixtures, & Alligations. Though not direct questions, they were acknowledged as tricky ones that would certainly require thorough knowledge of concepts to tide over them. The level of difficulty of the questions can be labelled ‘moderate to difficult’.

Approximations

There were three–four easy-to-solve questions based on Approximations.

Data Comparison

There were four–five questions based on Data Comparison (3 Quantities). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

Quadratic Comparison

There were four–five questions based on Quadratic Comparison. These questions can be rated as moderate.

Two–three questions were based on finding roots of three Quadratic Equations and establishing the relation among them. There were also Condition-based Quadratic Equations (three Quadratic Equations with a variable given in the equation and the middle term missing). To find the variable, some conditions were given.

Number Series:

About 4–5 set-based missing and wrong number series were given. These questions can be rated as ‘moderate’.

Topic	No. of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation:
Table	6	Moderate
Bar Graph	6	Moderate to Difficult
Line Graph	6	Moderate
Caselet	4	Moderate to Difficult
Approximations	3–4	Easy
Number Series (Missing and Wrong)	4–5	Moderate
Individual Quant Questions	10–12	Moderate to Difficult
Quadratic Comparisons (Condition-based)	4–5	Moderate
Data Comparison (3 Quantities)	4–5	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning 

Overall, this section can be given a 'moderate' tag.

Analytical Puzzles

There were twenty-two questions based on puzzles—five questions, each on:

• designation-based + variable (colour)
• triangular arrangement + variable (musical instrument) and (number of persons facing inside more than persons facing outside)
• box arrangement (7 boxes) + variable (different stationary items)

There were also four questions on unknown number of persons + Distribution (linear arrangement, all facing north), one question each on five persons floor arrangement, linear arrangement (all facing north), and a day-based puzzle.

These questions cn be rated as moderate.

Input-Output

There were five questions based on words and numbers.  The questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

Symbols and Notations (Inequalities)

There were three–four questions on inequalities. The conclusions were given, followed by statements. These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

Blood Relations

There were three–four questions based on Coded Blood Relations. These questions were easy to moderately difficult.

Coding-Decoding

There were three–four questions on the new pattern Coding-Decoding. These questions ranged from moderately difficult to difficult.

Syllogisms:

There were two–three moderately difficult questions based on Coded Syllogisms.

Data Sufficiency

There were three easy–moderately difficult questions based on Data Sufficiency (two statements). These questions were based on Linear Arrangement, Circular Arrangement and Box-based Puzzle.

Critical Reasoning

There were eight–ten questions based on Critical Reasoning. These questions were tricky, and one required a thorough understanding of the concepts (both English grammar and logical reasoning) to answer these questions accurately.

The questions were based on Statements and Assumptions, Statements and Conclusions, Strong and Weak Arguments, Course of Action and Cause and Effect. These questions can be labelled ‘moderate to difficult’.

Topic	No. of Questions	Difficulty Level
Analytical Puzzles:
Designation-based + Variable (Colour)	5	Moderate
Triangular Arrangement + Variable (Musical Instrument) (Number of persons facing inside more than persons facing outside)	5	Moderate
Box Arrangement (7 boxes) + Variable (Different stationary items)	5	Moderate
Unknown number of persons (Linear Arrangement, all facing North)	4	Easy to Moderate
Five-person Floor Arrangement	1	Easy
Linear Arrangement (All facing North)	1	Easy
Day-based puzzle	1	Easy
Input Output	5	Moderate
Symbols and Notations (Inequalities)	3–4	Easy to Moderate
Blood Relations	3–4	Moderate
Coding – Decoding	3–4	Moderate to Difficult
Syllogisms	2–3	Moderate
Critical Reasoning	8–10	Moderate to Difficult
Data Sufficiency	3	Moderate
Miscellaneous (Meaningful word, Word Arrangement)	2	Easy to Moderate

English Language

According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as moderate to difficult.

Reading Comprehension

There were two passages with a total of fifteen questions. The level of difficulty of the questions can be pegged as ‘moderate’.

The first passage was based on ‘Dark Design Patterns’. The terminology was easy to understand. There were eight questions based on this passage, out of which one question involved finding out the synonyms represented in the column-based format. The other questions were direct ones based on the passage. This passage was easy to comprehend, and the questions can be rated as ‘moderate’ in terms of difficulty level.

The second passage was based on ‘Philosophy – Differences and Similarities’ by James Wilson. There were seven questions based on this passage, out of which one question involved identifying an inappropriate word from the bold words given in the passage. The other questions were direct ones based on the passage. This passage was difficult to interpret.

Grammatically Correct Sentences

Three–four questions with three different sentences were presented. One had to find out the correct statement in three questions, and in one question, one had to identify the incorrect sentence. These questions were moderately difficult.

Phrase Replacement

There were two–three questions based on Phrase Replacement. One sentence with two phrases in bold was given, followed by three suggestions. One had to select one or more sentences that would replace the given phrases in bold. This is a NEW question type that appeared in this exam.

Word Interchange

There were four–five questions, which were easy to moderately difficult. In each question, five words were given in bold, and one had to identify the word that was in its correct place. These questions can be rated as ‘moderate’.

Word Usage

There were two–three questions based on Word Usage. A word was given, followed by its usage. One had to identify the sentence where the opposite of the given word was used. These questions can be rated as ‘moderate’. This is a NEW question type that appeared in this exam. In earlier exams, one had to identify the correct usage of the word.

Para Forming Questions

There were five questions based on Para Forming (Seven Sentences). These questions were easy to moderately difficult.

Fill in the Blanks (Two Blanks)

There were four–five questions based on two blanks present. These questions were easy to moderately difficult to answer.

Sentence Connector (Two Statements and Three Phrases)

There were two–three questions based on Sentence Connector, where three sentences were given, followed by two connectors. One needed to connect the three statements using these two connectors to connect the statements. These questions were easy to moderate to answer.

Sentence Rearrangement

There were two to three questions based on Sentence Rearrangement. Three statements were given, these statements if arranged in order, form a meaningful paragraph, identify the starting sentence of the paragraph. These questions can be rated as ‘easy to moderate’.

Topic	No. of Questions	Difficulty Level
Reading Comprehension	15 (2 Passages)	Moderate to Difficult
Word Interchange	4–5	Moderate
FIB (Two Blanks)	4–5	Easy to Moderate
Word Usage (Antonym) (One word, three usages)	2–3	Moderate
Phrase Replacement	2–3	Moderate to Difficult
Grammatically Correct Sentences	3–4	Moderate
Sentence Connector	2–3	Easy to Moderate
Para Forming (Seven Sentences)	5	Easy to Moderate
Sentence Rearrangement	2–3	Moderate

General Awareness 

About half of the questions asked in this section were based on Current Affairs, while the rest were related to the Economy, Banking, etc. A lot of questions were about events that took place in the last three–four months.

The students reported that this section was easy to moderately difficult. A few questions that were asked in this shift, as reported by our students, are given below:

• Nomadic Elephant 2025 (Joint military operation between India and Mongolia)
• Nobel Prize
• Which country will host the ISSF World Cup?
• CM of Orissa
• Niveshak Didi 2 is launched by
• According to the Global Peace Index, the World’s most peaceful Country is
• Minister of Jal Sakhti
• FDI data 2024–25
• Celebration of National Teachers’ Day started from which year?
• International Sign Language Day
• ICC Women’s World Cup
• Jal Jeevan Mission
• IN-SPACE
• Rank of India in Human Development Index (HDI)
• PM Gram Sadak Yojana Phase
• IICT is based in which State?
• India’s first-ever Polar Research Vessel
• India’s first indigenously designed Diving Support Vessel
• Mark Carney is the PM of which country?
• Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary
• Headquarters of UN-Habitat
• In July 2025, which cricketer took five wickets in five balls?
• KCC – Allied Activities
• First country to launch a national-level cryptocurrency payment system for tourism in partnership with Binance Pay and DK Bank
• FSDC is chaired by whom?
• A Nation in Making – Autobiography of Surendranath Banerjea
• Which country performed well in the Super Swachh League (Population range: 3 to 10 lakhs)?
• Pradhanmantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
• India-UK trade deal
• Bihar Kokila Sharada SInha
• Cotton import is extended till which date?
• Senior Citizens Savings Scheme
• CDSL is promoted by
• Patola GI is related to which state?

Overall, the exam can be rated as moderate to difficult.

Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 20th Sep 2025 (Shift 1)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2025 Prelim exam held on the 20th of September 2025 (Shift 1) has been presented below.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area	No. of questions	Duration
Numerical Ability	35 Questions	20 Mins
Reasoning Ability	35 Questions	20 Mins
English Language	30 Questions	20 Mins
Total no. of Questions	100 Qs	60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The sections in the exam appeared in the following sequence:

• English Language
• Reasoning Ability
• Numerical Ability

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as Easy to Moderate.

There were no questions on Number Series and Quadratic Comparisons.

Data Interpretation: There were fifteen questions (3 sets) based on data interpretation.
One set was based on a Table, the second on a Bar Graph, and the third on a Caselet. The Table and Bar Graph were easy, whereas the Caselet was moderate.

Simplifications: There were ten questions, mostly easy.

Individual Quant Questions: Ten questions from topics like Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Interest, Mixtures, Boats and Streams, Mensuration, etc.

A student could solve around 23 - 24 questions in 20 minutes.

Topic	No. of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation (Table, Bar Graph and Caselet)	15	Easy to Moderate
Simplifications	10	Easy
Individual Quant questions	10	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning:

This section was rated as Easy.

Puzzles formed the majority (18 questions). Other topics included Symbols & Notations, Direction Sense, and Syllogisms. About 32–33 questions could be solved in 20 minutes.

Topic	No of Qs	Difficulty Level
Set of words	5	Easy
Direction Sense	3	Easy
Symbols and Notations (Inequalities)	3	Easy
Deductions (Syllogisms)	3	Easy to Moderate
Miscellaneous (Coding-Decoding, Meaningful Word, Word Arrangement)	3	Easy
Puzzles – Floor Arrangement (8 Floors)	5	Easy
Puzzles – Unknown number facing North	5	Easy
Puzzles – Month & Date (4 months, 2 dates)	5	Easy
Puzzles – Scheduling (gifts order)	3	Easy

English Language:

This section was tagged as Easy.

• Reading Comprehension (Sea Pollution) – 8 questions
• Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank) – 6 questions
• Para Forming (6 sentences) – 5 questions
• Error Identification – 5 questions
• Word Interchange (4 words) – 5 questions
• Word Usage (1 word, 3 usages) – 1 question

Topic	No of Questions	Difficulty Level
Reading Comprehension	8	Easy to Moderate
Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank)	6	Easy
Para Forming Questions (six sentences)	5	Easy
Word Interchange (4 words)	5	Easy
Error Identification	5	Easy
Word Usage (1 word; 3 usages)	1	Easy

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.

Good Attempts:

Test Area	Good Attempts
Quantitative Aptitude	23 – 24
Reasoning Ability	32 – 33
English Language	24 – 25
Overall	79 – 82

Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 27th Sep 2025 (Shift 1)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2025 Prelim exam held on the 27th of September 2025 (Shift 1) has been presented below.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area	No. of questions	Duration
Numerical Ability	35 Questions	20 Mins
Reasoning Ability	35 Questions	20 Mins
English Language	30 Questions	20 Mins
Total no. of Questions	100 Qs	60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The sections in the exam appeared in the following sequence.

• English Language
• Numerical Ability
• Reasoning Ability

The section-wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’.

There were no questions on Number Series and Quadratic Comparisons.

Data Interpretation: There were fifteen questions (4 sets) based on data interpretation.

One set was based on a Table (Number of pencils, pens and books sold by three shopkeepers), the second set was based on a Bar Graph which contained the details of students who have opted for singing and dancing. and the remaining two sets were based on Caselets (one with three questions and the other with two questions). The questions on the Table were time-consuming, and the questions on the Bar Graph were easy to solve, whereas the questions on the Caselet were easy to moderate, as calculations were involved.

Simplifications: There were ten questions on Simplifications, of which three questions were calculations-based, and the rest were easy to solve.

Individual Quant Questions: There were ten questions from topics of Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Mixtures, Boats and Streams, Mensuration, etc. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 23 - 24 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

Topic	No. of Questions	Difficulty Level
Data Interpretation (Table, Bar Graph and two Caselets)	15	Easy to Moderate
Simplifications	10	Easy
Individual Quant questions	10	Easy to Moderate

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy' tag.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (8 persons, all facing towards centre), unknown number of persons facing North, Month and Date based (8 persons, 4 months & 2 dates), Linear Arrangement (8 persons, all facing North), which were easy to solve.

There were three questions each on Symbols and Notations (Inequalities), Directions Sense and Syllogisms (Deductions). The questions in Syllogisms were based on 3 statements and 2 conclusions. The questions on Directions Sense, Inequalities and Syllogisms were easy to solve.

There were five questions based on a set of words, which were easy to solve.

About 33 to 34 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

Topic	No of Qs	Difficulty Level
Set of words	5	Easy
Direction Sense	3	Easy
Symbols and Notations (Inequalities)	3	Easy
Deductions (Syllogisms)	3	Easy to Moderate
Miscellaneous (Letter Odd one out, pair of words)	3	Easy
Puzzles - Circular Arrangement (8 persons, all facing towards centre)	5	Easy
Puzzles - Unknown number of people, all facing North	3	Easy
Puzzles - Month and Date based (4 months & 2 dates)	5	Easy
Puzzles - Linear Arrangement (8 persons, all facing North)	5	Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy’ by our students.

• The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation and comprised eight questions. The passage was based on the topic ‘Startup company on memes’. There were three questions on ‘Synonyms’, and one question on fill-in-the-blank.
• There were six questions on the Cloze Test.
• There were five questions each on ‘Sentence Reordering’ and ‘Word Interchange (4 words)’.
• There were four questions on Grammatically Correct Sentences, out of which two were on identifying the Correct sentence and the remaining on identifying the incorrect sentence.
• There were two questions on Word usage (1 word; 3 usages).

Thus, about 25 - 26 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions	Difficulty Level
Reading Comprehension	8	Easy to Moderate
Cloze Test	6	Easy
Sentence Reordering	5	Easy
Word Interchange (4 words)	5	Easy
Grammatically Correct Sentences	4	Easy
Word Usage (1 word; 3 usages)	2	Easy

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.

Good Attempts:

Test Area	Good Attempts
Quantitative Aptitude	23 – 24
Reasoning Ability	33 - 34
English Language	25 – 26
Overall	81 - 84

Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim Exam held on 4 th Oct 2025 (Shift 1)

The analysis of the IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim exam held on 4 th Oct 2025 (Shift 1) is presented below.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area	No of Questions	Max Marks	Duration
Numerical Ability	35	35	20 Mins
Reasoning Ability	35	35	20 Mins
English Language	30	30	20 Mins
Total	100	100	60 Mins

Number of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question

According to feedback received from our students who took this exam, it can be rated aseasy.

The sections in the exam appeared in the following sequence.

• Numerical Ability
• English Language
• Reasoning Ability

The section-wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.

There were no questions on Number Series and Quadratic Comparisons.

The twelve questions on Simplifications were easy to solve. There were ten questions (2sets) on Data Interpretation (Table and Line Graph). The questions on Data Interpretation were easy to solve. The table contains details of two persons selling English books, Hindi books and Urdu books. The line graph contains details on the number of books sold by four different book sellers.

Individual Quant Questions: There were thirteen questions from topics of Ages,Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Mixtures,Boats and Streams, Mensuration, etc. These were a combination of easy and moderateones. A student could, therefore, solve around 26 to 27 questions in approximately 20 minutes,provided he chose judiciously.

Topic	No of Questions
Data Interpretation (Table & Line Graph)	10
Simplifications	12
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Mixtures, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc.)	13

Reasoning:

This section has been tagged as Easy.

In this slot, there were five questions on Sequence and three questions each on Symbols Notations (Inequalities), Blood Relations and Direction Sense. These questions were easy to solve.

There were eighteen questions on puzzles – Circular Arrangement (Eight persons; all facing inside), Month-based (Eight months; non-consecutive), Linear Arrangement(Uncertain number of persons), and Box-based puzzle (Eight boxes). The questions on Puzzles were easy to solve.

Thus, almost 33 to 34 questions could be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.

The topic-wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Analytical Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (Eight persons; all facing inside), Month-based (Eight months; non-consecutive), Linear Arrangement (Uncertain number of persons), and Box-based puzzle (Eight boxes))	18
Sequence	5
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities)	3
Direction Sense	3
Blood Relations	3
Miscellaneous (Meaningful word, Pair of Digits and Odd-one-out)	3

English Language:

This section too was predictable and was rated as easy.

• The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation,and nine questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonyms and one question on fill-in-the-blank. The passage was based on ‘Army Dog’.
• There were six questions on the Cloze Test. The topic was based on ‘Medical Research: Reconstruction from an old skeleton’. The words given in the options were very close, and one should be careful while choosing the answer choices.
• There were five questions each on Error Identification and Word Interchange (3words)
• There were four questions on Phrase Replacement and one question on Word usage.

We can deduce that about 24 - 25 questions could be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Reading Comprehension	9
Cloze Test	6
Word Interchange	5
Error Identification	5
Phrase Replacement	4
Word Usage (One word; three usages)	1

Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this shift can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Test Area	Good Attempts
Numerical Ability	26 - 27
Reasoning Ability	33 - 34
English Language	24 - 25
Overall	83 - 86

Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim Exam held on 5th Oct 2025 (Shift 2)

The analysis of the IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim exam held on 5th Oct 2025 (Shift 2) is presented below.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area	No of Questions	Max Marks	Duration
Numerical Ability	35	35	20 Mins
Reasoning Ability	35	35	20 Mins
English Language	30	30	20 Mins
Total	100	100	60 Mins

Number of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question

According to feedback received from our students who took this exam, it can be rated as easy.

The sections in the exam appeared in the following sequence:

• Numerical Ability
• English Language
• Reasoning Ability

Section-wise Analysis

Numerical Ability:

According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
There were no questions on Number Series and Quadratic Comparisons.
The ten questions on Simplifications were easy to solve. There were twelve questions (2 sets) on Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph). The questions on Data Interpretation were easy to solve. The table contains details of three places and three modes (Plane, Train and Bus) to reach these places. The bar graph contains details on the number of shops in four cities (P, Q, R, S).

Individual Quant Questions: There were thirteen questions from topics of Ages, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time and Distance, Mixtures, Trains, Mensuration, etc. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.

A student could, therefore, solve around 27 to 28 questions in approximately 20 minutes, provided he chose judiciously.

Topic	No of Questions
Data Interpretation (Table & Bar Graph)	12
Simplifications	10
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time and Distance, Mixtures, Trains, Mensuration, etc)	13

Reasoning:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on a Set of words and coding-decoding, three questions each on Syllogisms and Direction Sense and two questions on Blood Relations. These questions were easy to solve.
There were fifteen questions on puzzles: Two Row Arrangement (Ten persons; five persons facing North and five persons facing South), Floor Arrangement (eight persons;4 floors & two flats) and Day-based puzzle (Monday to Sunday). The questions on Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 32 to 33 questions could be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.

The topic-wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Analytical Puzzles:
Two Row Arrangement (Ten persons; five facing North & five facing South)	5
Floor Arrangement (eight persons;4 floors & two flats)	5
Day-based puzzle (Monday to Sunday)	5
Set of Words	5
Coding-Decoding	5
Syllogisms (Deductions)	3
Direction Sense	3
Blood Relations	2
Miscellaneous (Pair of Digits and Word Arrangement)	2

English Language:

This section too was predictable and was rated as easy.

• The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and nine questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonyms and one question on fill-in-the-blank. The passage was based on ‘Animal Rescue Centre’.
• There were six questions on the Cloze Test. The topic was based on ‘Rafting experience’.
• There were five questions on Error Identification.
• There were four questions each on Phrase Replacement and Word Interchange (3 words).
• There was one question each on Word usage and Match the column.

We can deduce that about 25 - 26 questions could be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Reading Comprehension	9
Cloze Test	6
Word Interchange	4
Error Identification	5
Phrase Replacement	4
Match the column	1
Word Usage (One word; three usages)	1

Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this shift can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Test Area	Good Attempts
Numerical Ability	27 - 28
Reasoning Ability	32 - 33
English Language	25 - 26
Overall	84 - 87

Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim Exam held on 5th Oct 2025 (Shift 3)

The analysis of the IBPS Clerk 2025 Prelim exam held on 5th Oct 2025 (Shift 3) is presented below.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area	No of Questions	Max Marks	Duration
Numerical Ability	35	35	20 Mins
Reasoning Ability	35	35	20 Mins
English Language	30	30	20 Mins
Total	100	100	60 Mins

Number of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question

According to feedback received from our students who took this exam, it can be rated as easy.

The sections in the exam appeared in the following sequence:

• Numerical Ability
• English Language
• Reasoning Ability

Section-wise Analysis

Numerical Ability:

According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
There were no questions on Quadratic Comparisons.
The eleven questions on Simplifications were easy to solve. There were eight questions (2 sets) on Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph). The table contains details of three persons making toys of three types (Wooden, Metallic, etc.). The bar graph contains details of two players, A & B and runs scored by them on two days (Monday and Tuesday).
There were two questions based on the Wrong Number Series.

Individual Quant Questions: There were fourteen questions from topics of Ages, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns, Time and Distance, Averages, Mixtures, Trains, Mensuration, Numbers, etc. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.

A student could, therefore, solve around 28 to 29 questions in approximately 20 minutes, provided he chose judiciously.

Topic	No of Questions
Data Interpretation (Table & Bar Graph)	8
Simplifications	11
Wrong Number Series	2
Ages	1
Percentages	2
Profit & Loss	1
Partnership	1
Simple and Compound Interest	2
Time & Work	1
Pipes & Cisterns	1
Time, Speed & Distance	1
Mensuration	1
Averages	1
Mixtures & Alligations	1
Numbers	1

Reasoning:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions on a Set of words, three questions each on Syllogisms and Direction Sense.
There were twenty-one questions on puzzles: Unknown number of persons (All facing North). (No. of persons <=13), Linear Arrangement (8 persons; all facing North), Months & Date-based puzzle (4 months & 2 dates), Square Arrangement (8 persons; persons sitting at the corners facing inside and persons sitting at the middle facing outside), Comparisons (6 persons). The questions on Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 32 to 33 questions could be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.

The topic-wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Unknown number of persons (All facing North). (No. of persons <=13)	3
Linear Arrangement (8 persons; all facing North)	5
Months & Date-based puzzle (4 months & 2 dates)	5
Square Arrangement (8 persons; corners facing inside, middle facing outside)	5
Comparisons (6 persons)	3
Set of Words	5
Syllogisms (Deductions)	3
Direction Sense	3
Miscellaneous (Pair of Digits, Number Arrangement and Word Arrangement)	3

English Language:

This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.

• The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were three questions on Synonyms and one question on fill-in-the-blank. The passage was based on ‘Forest Fire (Wild Fire)’.
• There were five questions each on Para Forming (5 sentences) and Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank). The topic was on ‘Muslims migrating from North America’. The questions on Phrase Replacement were moderate in terms of difficulty level.
• There were five questions on Error Identification.
• There were four questions on Phrase Replacement and three questions on Grammatically Correct Sentences. The questions on Grammatically Correct Sentences were moderate in nature.

We can deduce that approximately 22 - 23 questions could be solved within the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

Topic	No of Questions
Reading Comprehension	10
Para Forming Questions (5 Sentences)	5
Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank)	5
Grammatically Correct Sentences	3
Phrase Replacement	4
Word Interchange	3

Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this shift can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

Test Area	Good Attempts
Numerical Ability	28 - 29
Reasoning Ability	32 - 33
English Language	22 - 23
Overall	82 - 85