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Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2024 Prelim Exam held on 24th Aug 2024 (Shift 1)
The analysis of the IBPS Clerk 2024 Prelim exam held on 24th Aug 2024 (Shift 1) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
| Test Area | No of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|
| Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
| Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
| English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
The section-wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
The fifteen questions on Simplifications easy to solve. Five questions on Data Interpretation (Line Graph) were easy to solve.
There were five questions on Number series (Missing Number). Quant questions in this section were ten in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
| Topic | No of Questions |
|---|---|
| Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 5 |
| Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
| Simplifications | 15 |
| Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on Sequence and Symbols & Notations (Inequalities). These questions were easy to solve.
There were twenty-two questions on puzzles – Circular Arrangement (Eight persons; all facing inside), Month-based (Eight months), Linear Arrangement (Uncertain number of persons), Comparisons and Scheduling-based (One after the other). The questions on Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic-wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
| Topic | No of Questions |
|---|---|
| Analytical Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (Eight persons; all facing inside), Month-based (Eight months), Linear Arrangement (Uncertain number of persons), Comparisons and Scheduling-based (One after the other) | 22 |
| Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 5 |
| Sequence | 5 |
| Miscellaneous (Meaningful word, Number Arrangement) | 3 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonyms and one question on fill-in-the-blank.
- There were five questions on Para Forming, three questions each on Grammatically Correct Sentence and Word Interchange and four questions each on Phrase Replacement and fill in the blank.
We can deduce that about 23 - 25 questions could be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
| Topic | No of Questions |
|---|---|
| Reading Comprehension | 10 |
| Para Forming Sentences | 5 |
| Word Interchange | 3 |
| Grammatically Correct Sentence | 3 |
| Phrase Replacement | 4 |
| Fill in the Blank | 4 |
| Word Usage (One word; three usages) | 1 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy.
Good Attempts:
| Test Area | Good Attempts |
|---|---|
| Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
| Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
| English Language | 23 - 25 |
| Overall | 74 - 80 |