Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 6th Jan 2024 (Shift 4)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2023 Prelim exam held on the 6th of January 2024 (Shift 4) has been presented below. The exam had a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.

Snapshot of the Exam:

Test Area No. of questions Duration
Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins
Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins
English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins
Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The section-wise analysis of the session as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’ but time-consuming.

This section had a similar topic-wise split as compared to the exam conducted across various shifts on 5th Jan and 6th Jan 2024, except for Data Interpretation where ten questions (five each on two Caselets) were present, instead of the regular five questions on Data Interpretation.

The questions on Data Interpretation were time-consuming. There were five questions on Number Series (Wrong Number) which can be rated as easy to moderate. There were fourteen questions on Simplifications, of which ten to eleven were easy and the rest were moderate.

Individual questions from topics of Ratio, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest and Mixtures and Alligations were six in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones. A few questions were lengthy to solve.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 20 - 22 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

Topic No. of Questions
Data Interpretation (Two Caselets) 10
Simplifications 14
Number Series (Wrong Number) 5
Individual Quant Questions 6

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy to Moderate' tag.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows with five persons each), Circular Arrangement (seven persons), Box Arrangement (7 boxes) and Comparisons which were easy to solve. There were five questions each on Coding-Decoding, Sequence and Deductions (Syllogisms).

About 24 to 26 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

Topic No of Qs Difficulty Level
Sequence 5 Easy
Deductions (Syllogisms) 5 Easy to Moderate
Coding - Decoding 5 Easy
Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Number Arrangement and OMO) 3 Easy
Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows with five persons each) 5 Easy
Circular Arrangement (seven persons) 5 Easy
Box Arrangement (seven boxes) 5 Easy
Comparisons 2 Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate’.

This section was on similar lines to the exam conducted on 5th Jan and 6th Jan (various slots) in terms of topic-wise split and difficulty level, except that the questions on the Cloze Test were missing in this slot whereas the question based on ‘Word Interchange’ found a place in this slot.

  • There was a single passage on Reading Comprehension and comprised ten questions. The passage is based on ‘Wood Pecker’. There was one question based on Theme and two on Synonyms.

  • There were five questions each on ‘Error Identification’, ‘Para Forming Questions’ (six sentences) and Phrase Replacement.

  • There were four questions on Fill in the Blank (Single Blank)

Thus, about 22 - 24 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:


Topic No of Questions
Reading Comprehension 10
Para Forming Questions (six Sentences) 5
Error Identification 5
Phrase Replacement 5
Fill in the Blank (Single Blank) 4
Word Interchange 1

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.

Good Attempts:

Test Area Good Attempts
Numerical Ability 20 - 22
Reasoning Ability 24 - 26
English Language 22 – 24
Overall 66 - 72