The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2021 Prelim exam held on 18th Dec 2020 (Slot 4) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to Moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
The 14 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were five questions on Data Interpretation (Table) which were easy to solve.
There were 5 questions on Number series (Missing Number). Quant questions in this section were eleven in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table) | 5 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 14 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 11 |
Reasoning:
This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were 5 questions each on Alpha Numeric Series and Coding-Decoding and four questions each on Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) and Syllogisms (Deductions).
The questions on puzzles include one each on Single Row arrangement (Seven Persons – all facing) and Distribution. Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic - wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles (Two Row arrangement (10 Persons – Five persons facing North and five persons facing South), Floor Arrangement (4 floors and 2 flats), Distributions (Days related) and Year based puzzle) | 10 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 4 |
Direction Sense | 1 |
Alpha Numeric Series | 5 |
Coding-Decoding | 5 |
Syllogisms (Deductions) (Model: ‘Only a few’) | 4 |
Miscellaneous (How many such pairs, Meaningful order and Letter Arrangement) | 3 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on ‘Temperature change and Heat wave’ was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were two questions on vocab – one on Synonym, and another on Antonym.
- There were five questions each on Para Forming Questions, Grammatically Correct Sentence and Word Interchange. PFQ had five sentences to be arranged to form a meaningful paragraph. Word Interchange had five words given in bold. One need to interchange the given words to form a grammatically correct sentence.
- There were four questions on Sentence Rearrangement.
We can deduce that about 23 - 25 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Para Forming Sentences | 5 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 4 |
Word Interchange | 5 |
Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Word Usage | 1 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
English Language | 23 - 25 |
Overall | 74 - 80 |
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2021 Prelim exam held on 18th Dec 2020 (Slot 3) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
The fifteen questions on Simplifications were easy. There were six questions on Data Interpretation (Table) which were easy to solve.
There were five questions on Number series (Wrong Number). Quant questions in this section were nine in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table) | 6 |
Number Series (Wrong number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 15 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 9 |
Reasoning:
This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on Set of Numbers and three questions each on Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) and Syllogisms (Deductions).
The questions on puzzles include one each on Square Arrangement (Eight persons; persons sitting at the corners facing away from the centre and the persons sitting in the middle facing towards centre), Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons), Comparisons (Heights), Box arrangement (Seven boxes) and Distribution (Designation based; seven designations). Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic - wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles Square Arrangement (Eight persons; persons sitting at the corners facing away from the centre and the persons sitting in the middle facing towards centre) |
5 |
Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons) | 4 |
Comparisons (Heights) | 3 |
Box arrangement (Seven boxes) | 5 |
Distribution (Designation based; seven designations) | 5 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 3 |
Set of Numbers | 5 |
Syllogisms (Deductions) (Model: ‘Only a few’) | 3 |
Miscellaneous (How many such pairs and Meaningful order) | 2 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on ‘Animal Migration’ was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were three questions on vocab – two on Synonym, and another on Antonym.
- There were five questions each on Para Forming Questions, Error Identification and Phrase Replacement. PFQ contains five sentences to be arranged to form a meaningful paragraph.
- There were three questions on Word Interchange. The question contains three words given in bold. Interchange the given words to form a grammatically correct sentence.
We can deduce that about 23 - 25 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Para Forming Sentences | 5 |
Word Interchange | 5 |
Error Identification | 5 |
Phrase Replacement | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
English Language | 23 - 25 |
Overall | 74 - 80 |
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2021 Prelim exam held on 18th Dec 2020 (Slot 2) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to Moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy.
The thirteen questions on Simplifications were easy. There were six questions on Data Interpretation (Line Graph) which were easy to solve.
There were six questions on Number series (Missing Number). Quant questions in this section were nine in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 6 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 6 |
Simplifications | 13 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on Coding-Decoding and four questions each on Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) and Syllogisms (Deductions).
The questions on puzzles include one each on Scheduling based (Eight persons; four months; two dates), Scheduling based (Seven persons; seven days). The questions on Puzzles were easy to solve.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic - wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles (Scheduling based (Eight persons; four months; two dates), Scheduling based (Seven persons; seven days) | 10 |
Coding-Decoding (5 set based and one individual) | 6 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 4 |
Direction Sense | 3 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Syllogisms (Deductions) (Model: ‘Only a few’) | 4 |
Sequence (Only Digits)q | 2 |
Miscellaneous (How many such pairs, Word Arrangement and Meaningful order) | 3 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonyms.
- There were five questions each on
- Para Forming Questions. Five sentences to be arranged to form a meaningful paragraph
- Identifying Grammatically Correct Sentence
- Phrase Replacement
- Wrongly Spelt Word
We can deduce that about 23 - 25 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Para Forming Sentences | 5 |
Wrongly Spelt Word | 5 |
Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Phrase Replacement | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
English Language | 23 - 25 |
Overall | 74 - 80 |
Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim Exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 4)
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 4) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as 'easy to moderate'.
The ten questions on Simplifications were easy to moderate and time consuming. There were ten questions on Data Interpretation (five questions each on Table and Bar Graph) which ranged from easy to moderate.
There were five questions on Number series (Missing Number). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate. Quant questions in this section were ten in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 22 to 24 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph) | 10 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on Coding-Decoding and Set of words. There were five questions on Coding-Decoding and four questions on Sequence.
There were twenty-one questions on puzzles include one each on Certain Linear (22 Persons), Distributions (8 persons, 4 months, 2 dates), Box arrangement, Floor arrangement (eight persons) and Comparisons + QBR). Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Coding – Decoding | 5 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) (Model: Only a few) | 2 |
Set of words | 5 |
Miscellaneous (Letter Arrangement and Meaningful word) | 2 |
Analytical Puzzles: | |
Certain Linear (22 Persons) | 4 |
Distributions (8 persons, 4 months, 2 dates) | 5 |
Box arrangement | 5 |
Floor arrangement (eight persons) | 5 |
Comparisons + QBR | 2 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on 'Space Projects' was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There were three questions on Synonyms and one question on Fill in the Blank.
- There were six questions on Cloze test
- There were five questions each on Para Forming (5 sentences) and Error Identification
- There were four questions each on Error Identification and Word Interchange (3 words A, B and C are given, interchange the words to make the given sentence grammatically and meaningfully correct)
We can deduce that about 25 - 27 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Cloze Test | 6 |
Para Forming (5 sentences) | 5 |
Word Interchange (3 words A, B and C are given, interchange the words to make the given sentence grammatically and meaningfully correct) | 4 |
Error Identification | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 22-24 |
Reasoning Ability | 28-30 |
English Language | 25 – 27 |
Overall | 75-81 |
Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim Exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 3)
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 3) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as 'easy to moderate'.
The twelve questions on Simplifications were easy to moderate and time consuming. There were eight questions on Data Interpretation (five questions on Table and three questions on Caselet) which ranged from easy to moderate.
There were five questions on Number series (Missing Number). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate. Quant questions in this section were ten in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 24 to 26 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table and Caselet) | 8 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 12 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were three questions each on Symbols and Notations (Inequalities), Blood Relations, and Deductions (Syllogisms). There were five questions on Coding-Decoding and four questions on Sequence.
The questions on puzzles include one each on Circular Arrangement (eight persons all facing towards centre), Distributions (Month based; 8 Months) and Floor based puzzle (Four floors and two flats)). Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (eight persons all facing towards centre), Distributions (Month based; 8 Months) and Floor based puzzle (Four floors and two flats)) | 15 |
Coding – Decoding | 5 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) (Model: Only a few) | 3 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 3 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Sequence | 4 |
Miscellaneous (Letter Arrangement and Meaningful word) | 2 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on 'Bird's nest dynamics' was conventional in its presentation, and eight questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonyms.
- There were five questions each on Para Forming (5 sentences), wrongly spelt words / inappropriate usage, and Phrase Replacement.
- There were seven questions on Error Identification.
We can deduce that about 25 - 27 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 |
Para Forming (5 sentences) | 5 |
Wrongly Spelt Words / Inappropriate usage | 5 |
Error Identification | 7 |
Phrase Replacement | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 24-26 |
Reasoning Ability | 28-30 |
English Language | 25 – 27 |
Overall | 77-83 |
Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim Exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 2)
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 2) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as 'easy to moderate'.
The ten questions on Simplifications were easy to moderate and time consuming compared to first slot. There were ten questions on Data Interpretation (5 questions each on Table and Bar Graph) which ranged from easy to moderate.
There were five questions on Number series (Missing Number). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate. Quant questions in this section were ten in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 24 to 26 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table and Bar Graph) | 10 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were five questions each on Sequence, Direction Sense and Deductions (Syllogisms). There were three questions on Symbols & Notations (Inequalities).
The questions on puzzles include one each on Queue arrangement (Eight persons), Circular Arrangement (eight persons all facing towards centre), Distributions (Month based; 8 Months) and Year based puzzle. Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles (Queue arrangement (Eight persons), Circular Arrangement (eight persons all facing towards centre), Distributions (Month based; 8 Months) and Year based puzzle) | 18 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) (Model: Only a few) | 5 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 3 |
Direction Sense | 5 |
Sequence | 3 |
Miscellaneous (Letter Arrangement) | 1 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on 'Ecological Balance – Mariana Trench - Exploration of Oceans' was conventional in its presentation, and ten questions were posed from it. There was one question on Synonym, and one questions on Fill in the blank.
- There were five questions each on Para Forming (5 sentences), wrongly spelt words / inappropriate usage, Fill in the blanks (Single Blank) and Error Identification.
We can deduce that about 25 - 27 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank) | 5 |
Para Forming (5 sentences) | 5 |
Wrongly Spelt Words / Inappropriate usage | 5 |
Error Identification | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 22-26 |
Reasoning Ability | 28-30 |
English Language | 25 – 27 |
Overall | 77-83 |
Analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim Exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 1)
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on 12th Dec 2020 (Slot 1) is presented below.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as 'easy to moderate'.
The 10 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were 10 questions on Data Interpretation (5 questions each Table and Line Graph) which ranged from easy to moderate.
There were 5 questions on Number series (Missing Number). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate. Quant questions in this section were 10 in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc. These questions were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could, therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table and Line Graph) | 10 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Quant Questions: (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Averages, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time & Distance and Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has tagged as 'Easy'.
In this slot, there were 4 - 5 questions on Sequence, three questions each on Blood Relations, 2 – 3 questions on Direction Sense and four questions on Symbols & Notations (Inequalities).
The questions on puzzles include one each on Two Row arrangement (10 Persons – Five persons facing North and five persons facing South), Floor Arrangement (4 floors and 2 flats), Distributions (Days related) and Year based puzzle. Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles (Two Row arrangement (10 Persons – Five persons facing North and five persons facing South), Floor Arrangement (4 floors and 2 flats), Distributions (Days related) and Year based puzzle) | 9 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Symbols & Notations (Inequalities) | 4 |
Direction Sense | 2-3 |
Sequence | 4-5 |
Miscellaneous (Letter Arrangement and Meaningful word) | 2 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and was rated as easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on 'CO2 emission – Environment of Sweden' was conventional in its presentation, and eight questions were posed from it. There were two questions on Synonym, and one questions on Antonym.
- There were seven questions on Cloze Test. The cloze test is based on the topic 'Sleeping Disorder'
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement, Wrongly spelt words / inappropriate usage and Grammatically Correct Sentences.
We can deduce that about 25 - 27 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 |
Cloze Passage | 7 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Wrongly Spelt Words / Inappropriate usage | 5 |
Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Overall, the difficulty level of the paper in this particular slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23-25 |
Reasoning Ability | 28-30 |
English Language | 25 – 27 |
Overall | 76-82 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 1st of March 2020 (Slot 4) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were 5 questions (1 set) on Data Interpretation – Line Graph. There were 5 questions each on Wrong number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Wrong number series were moderate in nature and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were 10 questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were 10 in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 26 - 28 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Wrong Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Profit & Loss, Averages, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were 18 questions on Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows), Floor Arrangement (8 floors), Floor Arrangement (4 floors, 2 flats), Distribution (Week based)) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were five questions on Symbols & Notations and four questions on Coding-Decoding. These questions are easy to solve.
About 27 to 29 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
(Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows), Floor Arrangement (8 floors), Floor Arrangement (4 floors, 2 flats), Distribution (Week based)) | 18 |
Symbols & Notations | 5 |
Coding-Decoding | 4 |
Direction Sense | 2 |
Set of Numbers | 3 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised eight questions. Out of these eight questions five were based on passage, one question each on Synonym and Antonym and FIB with Phrase. The passage was based on 'Concept of Diet'.
- There were six questions each on Fill in the Blanks (Single blank) and Wrongly spelt/inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement and 'identifying Grammatically Correct Sentence'
Thus, about 22 - 24 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Fill in the Blank (Single Blank) | 6 |
Identifying Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Wrongly spelt / inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence | 6 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 26 - 28 |
Reasoning Ability | 27 - 29 |
English Language | 22 - 24 |
Overall | 75 - 81 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 1st of March 2020 (Slot 2) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were eight questions (2 sets) on Data Interpretation – 5 questions on Table and 3 questions on Caselet. There were 5 questions each on Wrong number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Wrong number series were moderate in nature and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were ten questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were seven in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 22 - 24 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 8 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Wrong Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions : | |
Ages | 1 |
Profit & Loss | 1 |
Partnership | 1 |
Compound Interest | 1 |
Mensuration | 1 |
Averages | 1 |
Time & Distance | 1 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were fifteen questions on Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing North), Floor Arrangement ( 4 floors with 2 flats), Circular Arrangement) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were five questions on Coding-Decoding and 3 questions each on 'Blood Relations' and 'Symbols & Notations'. These questions were easy to solve. There were four questions on 'Deductions/Syllogisms'. Out of four questions, two were based on the model 'Only a few'
About 26 to 28 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing North), Certain Linear, Square Arrangement (Some facing centre and some facing away from the centre), Distributions(8 Persons + 4 Months + 2 Dates) and Comparisons) |
15 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Coding-Decoding | 5 |
Deductions / Syllogisms (Based on the model - 'Only a few') | 4 |
Set of Words | 3 |
Symbols & Notations | 3 |
Miscellaneous | 2 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised eight questions. Out of these eight questions five were based on passage, one question each on Synonym and Antonym and FIB with Phrase. The passage was based on 'Climatic Conditions'.
- There were seven questions on Cloze Test. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement, Wrongly spelt/inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence and 'Error Identification'
Thus, about 23 - 25 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Cloze Test | 7 |
Error Identification (A sentence was divided into five parts; one part contains error. Identify the incorrect part) | 5 |
Wrongly spelt / inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence | 5 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 22 - 24 |
Reasoning Ability | 26 - 28 |
English Language | 23 - 25 |
Overall | 71 - 77 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 1st of March 2020 (Slot 1) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were 5 questions (1 set) on Data Interpretation – Line Graph. There were 5 questions each on Missing number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Missing number series were moderate in nature and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were 10 questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were 10 in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 25 - 27 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Missing Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were 20 questions on Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (6 persons all facing North), Square Arrangement (8 persons; persons sitting at the corner facing outside and persons sitting at the middle facing inside), Floor Arrangement (8 persons), Distributions) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were five questions on Sequence. These questions are easy to solve.
About 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
(Linear Arrangement (6 persons all facing North), Square Arrangement (8 persons; persons sitting at the corner facing outside and persons sitting at the middle facing inside), Floor Arrangement (8 persons), Distributions) | 20 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Symbols & Notations | 3 |
Sequence | 5 |
Miscellaneous | 4 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised ten questions. Out of these ten questions six were based on passage and remaining were based on vocab. The passage was based on 'Wild fires in USA'.
- There were five questions on Cloze Test. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Para Jumbled Sentences (Five Sentences), identifying 'Grammatically Correct Sentence' and 'Fill in the Blanks (Single blank)'
Thus, about 24 - 26 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Para Jumbled Sentences (Five sentences) | 5 |
Cloze Test | 5 |
Identifying the Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank) | 5 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 25 - 27 |
Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
English Language | 24 - 26 |
Overall | 77 - 83 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 29th of Feb 2020 (Slot 4) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were 5 questions (1 set) on Data Interpretation – Line Graph. There were 5 questions each on Wrong number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Wrong number series were moderate in nature and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were 10 questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were 10 in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 25 - 27 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Wrong Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Mensuration etc..) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were 21 questions on Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing North), Certain Linear, Square Arrangement (Some facing centre and some facing away from the centre), Distributions(8 Persons + 4 Months + 2 Dates) and Comparisons) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were five questions on Sequence. These questions are easy to solve.
About 28 to 30 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
Puzzle s(Linear Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing North), Certain Linear, Square Arrangement (Some facing centre and some facing away from the centre), Distributions(8 Persons + 4 Months + 2 Dates) and Comparisons) |
21 |
Direction Sense | 3 |
Coding-Decoding | 1 |
Sequence | 5 |
Set of Words | 3 |
Miscellaneous | 2 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised eight questions. Out of these eight questions five were based on passage, one question each on Synonym and Antonym and FIB with Phrase. The passage was based on 'Climatic Conditions'.
- There were seven questions on Cloze Test. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement, Wrongly spelt/inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence and 'Error Identification'
Thus, about 24 - 26 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Cloze Test | 7 |
Error Identification (A sentence was divided into five parts; one part contains error. Identify the incorrect part) | 5 |
Wrongly spelt / inappropriate usage of a word in the given sentence | 5 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 28 - 30 |
English Language | 24 - 26 |
Overall | 75 - 81 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 22nd of Feb 2020 (Slot 3) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were 5 questions (1 set) on Data Interpretation – Table. There were 5 questions each on Missing number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Missing number series and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were 10 questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were 10 in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 25 - 27 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Tabular data) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Missing Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Mensuration etc..) |
10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were 21 questions on Puzzles (Square Arrangement (8 Persons some facing centre and some facing away from the centre), Certain Linear (Number of persons not given), Floor Arrangement (10 persons & 10 floors), Distribution (8 persons, 4 months and two dates) and Comparisons) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were three questions each on Direction Sense and Symbols & Notations. These questions are easy to solve.
About 26 to 28 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
Puzzles (Square Arrangement (8 Persons some facing centre and some facing away from the centre), Certain Linear (Number of persons not given), Floor Arrangement (10 persons & 10 floors), Distribution (8 persons, 4 months and two dates and 1 questions on Comparisons (length of ropes)) |
21 |
Directions Sense | 3 |
Symbols & Notations | 3 |
Set of Numbers | 5 |
Miscellaneous | 3 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised 10 questions. Out of these 10 questions 7 were based on passage, one question each on Synonym and Antonym and one question on Phrase Replacement. The passage was based on 'Work-Life balance'.
- There were five questions on Cloze Test. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement, Fill in the blanks(Single blank) and identifying Grammatically Correct Sentence.
Thus, about 24 - 26 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Cloze Test | 5 |
Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank) | 5 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 25 - 27 |
Reasoning Ability | 26 - 28 |
English Language | 24 - 26 |
Overall | 75 - 81 |
The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2020 Prelim exam held on the 22nd of Feb 2020 (Slot 1) has been presented below. Similar to the SBI PO & Clerk Prelim exams conducted last year, the structure of even this exam presented a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question – 5
Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability:
This section can be rated as 'Easy to Moderate'. No new question types / pattern of questions were asked in this slot of the exam.
There were no questions on Approximations, Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison.
There were 5 questions (1 set) on Data Interpretation – Table. There were 5 questions each on Missing number series and Quadratic Comparisons. Questions on Missing number series and Quadratic Comparisons were easy solve. There were 10 questions on Simplifications and were easy to solve.
Individual questions were 10 in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.
A student could therefore, have solved around 25 - 27 questions in 20 minutes, if he chose judiciously.
Topic | No. of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Tabular data) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Series (Missing Number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Percentages, Partnership, Averages, Mixtures & Alligations, Boats & Streams, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Mensuration etc..) |
10 |
Reasoning:
This section has been given a 'Easy' tag.
There were 15 questions on Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing the centre), Distributions (Persons & Designations) and Comparisons) which were of easy to moderate level of difficulty. There were five questions each on Coding-Decoding and Deductions/Syllogisms (Two questions based on the model 'Only a few'). These questions are easy to solve.
About 27 to 29 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes. The topic -wise split, as reported by our students, is as given below.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
Puzzles (Circular Arrangement (8 Persons, all of them facing the centre), Distributions (Persons & Designations) and Comparisons) |
15 |
Directions Sense | 3 |
Symbols & Notations | 3 |
Coding - Decoding | 5 |
Deductions / Syllogisms (Two questions based on the model 'Only a few') |
5 |
Set of Numbers | 4 |
English Language :
This section has been tagged as 'Easy' by our students.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation, and comprised 10 questions. Out of these 10 questions 7 were based on passage, one question each on Synonym and Antonym and FIB.
- There were five questions on Cloze Test. All these questions were easy to solve.
- There were five questions each on Sentence Rearrangement, Wrongly spelt word in sentence and identifying Grammatically Correct Sentence.
Thus, about 24 - 26 questions could possibly be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 |
Cloze Test | 5 |
Grammatically Correct Sentence | 5 |
Wrongly spelt word in a sentence | 5 |
Over all, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 25 - 27 |
Reasoning Ability | 27 - 29 |
English Language | 24 - 26 |
Overall | 76 - 82 |