The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2018 Prelim exam held on 9th Dec 2018 (Slot 2) is presented below. Similar to the recently conducted IBPS PO Prelim, SBI PO and Clerk prelim exams, the structure of this exam presented a 20-minute per section time limit, and navigability between sections was disallowed.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No. of choices per question - 5
Negative marking – 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
The analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below.
While no changes were observed in the prescribed pattern of the exam, a few changes worth noting are:
- Introduction of a sectional time limit, similar to the one presented in IBPS PO 2018, SBI PO and Clerk 2018 Prelim examinations.
- Absence of questions on Symbols Notations, Blood Relations and Directio Sense.
Numerical Ability:
According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this slot of the exam, this section was along predictable lines with no surprise elements to catch candidates off-guard; it has thus been rated as ‘easy to moderate’.
The 10 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were 5 questions each on Data Interpretation (Bar Graph) and Quadratic Comparisons which were easy to solve.
The 5 questions on Number series (Missing number) can be rated between easy to moderate. Individual questions in this section were 10 in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Time & Work, Pipes and Cistern, Boats and Streams, Simple Interest, and Mensuration etc., and were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could therefore, solve around 25 to 27 questions in approximately 20 minutes, provided he chose carefully.
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Bar Graph) | 5 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Time & Work, Pipes and Cisterns, Boats and Streams, Mensuration and Simple Interest) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has also been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate'.
This slot had 5 questions each on Deductions, Coding-Decoding and Set of numbers. No questions were asked from Symbol-Notations, Blood relations and Direction Sense. The 4 questions on Sequence were doable.
There were 3 puzzles, one each on Linear arrangements (Uncertain no. of persons), Floor Arrangement, and Circular Arrangement (8 persons facing centre). Though these were easy to moderate, they were lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 24 to 26 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles( Linear arrangements (Uncertain no. of persons), Floor Arrangement, and Circular Arrangement (8 persons facing centre)) | 15 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) | 5 |
Coding – Decoding | 5 |
Sequence | 4 |
Set of numbers | 5 |
Word Formation | 1 |
English Language:
This section was almost as expected, and fluctuated between easy to moderate.
- There was a single Reading Comprehension passage that was conventional in its presentation, and 8 questions were asked from it. There were 2 questions based on Vocab.
- There were 5 questions on Error Identification, where 4 sentences were given and the test-taker had to opt for the Gramatically correct one.
- There were 7 questions on Cloze Test.
- There were 5 questions on Sentence Rearrangement which were easy to attempt.
- There were 5 questions on Phrase Replacement where a sentence with one part in bold font was to be replaced with the correct choice from among the five given.
We can deduce that about 21 - 23 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions | Difficulty Level |
---|---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 8 | Easy |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 | Easy |
Error Identification (Identifying the Gramatically Correct Sentence) | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Cloze Test | 7 | Easy - Moderate |
Phrase Replacement | 5 | Easy |
Over all, the difficulty level of the paper in this particular slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 25 - 27 |
Reasoning Ability | 24 - 26 |
English Language | 21 - 23 |
Overall | 70 - 76 |
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2018 Prelim exam held on 9th Dec 2018 (Slot 1) is presented below. Similar to the recently conducted IBPS PO Prelim, SBI PO and Clerk prelim exams, the structure of this exam presented a 20-minute per section time limit, and no navigability between any section.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question - 5
Negative marking – 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
The analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below.
- While no changes were observed in the prescribed pattern of the exam, a few changes worth noting are:
- Introduction of a sectional time limit, which is similar to the one presented in IBPS PO 2018, SBI PO and Clerk 2018 Prelim examinations.
- A question type that required matching the clauses given in two different columns to form grammatically and logically coherent sentence. This was a replication of a similar pattern observed in the SBI Clerk Prelim and IBPS PO Prelim exams this year.
- No questions on Symbols Notations.
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section did not throw up any surprise and can be rated as ‘easy to moderate’.
The 10 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were 10 questions each on Data Interpretation (Line Graph and Caselet) which ranged from easy to moderate.
There were 5 questions on Number series(Wrong Number) that can be rated between easy to moderate. Individual questions in this section were 10 in number and pertained to – Simple Equations, Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Pipes & Cisterns, Time & Distance, Simple Interest, and Mensuration etc.. These were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could therefore, solve around 23 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Line Graph and Caselet) | 10 |
Number Series (Wrong number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions: | |
Simple Equations | 2 |
Ages | 1 |
Percentages | 2 |
Profit & Loss | 1 |
Simple Interest | 1 |
Mensuration | 1 |
Pipes and Cisterns | 1 |
Time & Distance | 1 |
Reasoning:
This section has also been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate'.
In this slot, there were 5 questions each on Coding-Decoding and Deductions. There were no questions asked from Symbol-Notation and Blood Relations. There were 2 – 3 questions on Direction Sense.
There were 4 puzzles, one each on Linear arrangements (10 persons facing North and South), Circular Arrangement (Some facing outside and Some facing Centre), Floor Arrangement, and Comparison of heights puzzle. Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 23 to 25 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles( Linear arrangements (10 persons facing North and South), Circular Arrangement (Some facing outside and Some facing Centre), Floor Arrangement, and Comparison of heights puzzle) | 18 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) | 5 |
Coding - Decoding | 5 |
Word Formation | 2 |
Sequence | 5 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and hovered between easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on ‘Cloud Technology implementation’ was conventional in its presentation, and 6 questions were posed from it. There were two vocab based questions (Synonym and Antonym)
- There were 4 questions on Phrase Replacement where a sentence with one part in bold font was to be replaced with the correct choice from among the five given.
- There were 5 questions on pairing of clauses to form a grammatically and logically correct sentence.
- The 5 questions on Para Formation had 5 sentences in jumbled order and need to be sequentially arranged to form a meaningful paragraph.
- There were 5 questions on Sentence Rearrangement which were easy to attempt.
- The 5 questions on spell-error correction was presented as a sentence with four words in bold, of which one was erroneously spelt or gramatically incorrect.
We can deduce that about 20 - 22 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions | Difficulty Level |
---|---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 6 | Easy |
Para Jumbled Sentences (5 Sentences) | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Phrase Replacement | 4 | Easy - Moderate |
Match the following Clauses to form grammatically and logically coherent sentence. | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Spelling | 5 | Easy |
Over all, the difficulty level of the paper in this particular slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 23 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 23 - 25 |
English Language | 20 - 22 |
Overall | 66 - 72 |
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2018 Prelim exam held on 8th Dec 2018 (Slot 2) is presented below. Similar to the recently conducted IBPS PO Prelim, SBI PO and Clerk prelim exams, the structure of this exam presented a 20-minute per section time limit, and navigability between sections was disallowed.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No. of choices per question - 5
Negative marking – 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
The analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below.
While no changes were observed in the prescribed pattern of the exam, a few changes worth noting are:
- Introduction of a sectional time limit, similar to the one presented in IBPS PO 2018, SBI PO and Clerk 2018 Prelim examinations.
- A question type that required matching the clauses given in two different columns to form a grammatically and logically coherent sentence. This was a replication of the pattern observed in the SBI Clerk Prelim and IBPS PO Prelim exams this year.
- Absence of questions on Symbols Notations and Coding-Decoding.
Numerical Ability:
According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this slot of the exam, this section was along predictable lines with no surprise elements to catch candidates off-guard; it has thus been rated as ‘easy to moderate’.
The 10 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were 10 questions on Data Interpretation (Table and Caselet) which ranged from easy to moderate.
The 5 questions on Number series can be rated between easy to moderate. Individual questions in this section were 10 in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Simple Interest, and Mensuration etc., and were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could therefore, solve around 20 to 23 questions in approximately 20 minutes, provided he chose carefully.
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table and Caselet) | 10 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Individual Questions (Ages, Percentages, Profit & lOSS, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Mensuration and Simple and Compound Interest) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has also been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate'.
This slot had 5 questions on Deductions. No questions were asked from Coding – Decoding and Symbol-Notations. Blood Relations and Alphabet Series presented 2 – 3 questions, while Numeric Series had 5 doable questions.
There were 4 puzzles, one each on Linear arrangements (12 persons facing North and South), Floor Arrangement, Distribution (7 people and 7 cities), Month based puzzle. Though these were easy to moderate, they were lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 23 to 25 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles( Linear arrangements (12 persons facing North and South), Floor Arrangement , Month based puzzle and Distribution (7 people and 7 cities)) | 20 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) | 5 |
Blood Relations | 2 - 3 |
Alphabet Series | 2 - 3 |
Numerical Series | 5 |
English Language:
This section was almost as expected, and fluctuated between easy to moderate.
- There was a single Reading Comprehension passage that was conventional in its presentation, and 6 questions were asked from it.
- There were 4-5 questions on Error Identification, where 4 sentences were given and the test-taker had to opt for the Gramatically correct one.
- There were 5 questions on pairing of clauses to form a grammatically and logically correct sentence.
- The 5 questions on Para Formation had 5 sentences in jumbled order and need to be sequentially arranged to form a meaningful paragraph.
- There were 4 - 5 questions on single blank fillers which were easy to attempt.
- There were word usage related questions, where one was expected to identify that sentence out of the given three, in which the given word was used correctly.
We can deduce that about 18 - 20 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions | Difficulty Level |
---|---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 6 | Easy |
Para Jumbled Sentences (5 Sentences) | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Error Identification (Identifying the Gramatically Correct Sentence) | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Match the following Clauses to form grammatically and logically coherent sentence. | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Fill in the blanks (Single Blank) | 5 | Easy |
Word Usage | 4 | Easy - Moderate |
Over all, the difficulty level of the paper in this particular slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Numerical Ability | 22 - 24 |
Reasoning Ability | 23 - 25 |
English Language | 19 - 21 |
Overall | 64 - 71 |
The analysis of IBPS Clerk 2018 Prelim exam held on 8th Dec 2018 (Slot 1) is presented below. Similar to the recently conducted IBPS PO Prelim, SBI PO and Clerk prelim exams, the structure of this exam presented a 20-minute per section time limit, and no navigability between any section.
Snapshot of the Exam:
Test Area | No of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 Mins |
Total | 100 | 100 | 60 Mins |
No of choices per question - 5
Negative marking – 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
The analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below.
While no changes were observed in the prescribed pattern of the exam, a few changes worth noting are:
- Introduction of a sectional time limit, which is similar to the one presented in IBPS PO 2018, SBI PO and Clerk 2018 Prelim examinations.
- A question type that required matching the clauses given in two different columns to form grammatically and logically coherent sentence. This was a replication of a similar pattern observed in the SBI Clerk Prelim and IBPS PO Prelim exams this year.
- No questions on Symbols Notations, Blood Relations and Coding-Decoding.
Numerical Ability:
According to the feedback received from students who appeared for this exam, this section did not throw up any surprise and can be rated as ‘easy to moderate’.
The 10 questions on Simplifications were easy. There were 5 questions each on Data Interpretation (Table) and Quadratic Comparisons which were also doable.
There were 5 questions on Number series that can be rated between easy to moderate. Individual questions in this section were 10 in number and pertained to – Ages, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Simple Interest, and Mensuration etc.. These were a combination of easy and moderate.
A student could therefore, solve around 22 to 25 questions in approximately 20 minutes provided he chose judiciously.
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table) | 5 |
Number Series (Missing number) | 5 |
Simplifications | 10 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Individual Questions (Ages, Percentages, Profit & lOSS, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Mensuration and Simple and Compound Interest) | 10 |
Reasoning:
This section has also been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate'.
In this slot, there were 3 to 4 questions on Deductions. There were no questions asked from Coding – Decoding, Symbol-Notation and Blood Relations. There were 2 – 3 questions on Direction Sense.
There were 4 puzzles, one each on Linear arrangements (12 persons facing North and South), Square Arrangement (8 people; people sitting at the corners facing outside and people sitting at the middle facing outside, Distribution (7 people and 7 cities), Days based puzzle and Comparison of heights puzzle. Puzzles were easy to moderate but lengthier than other questions in the same section.
Thus, almost 23 to 25 questions could possibly be solved in about 20 minutes in this section.
The topic -wise split, as per feedback received from our students, is as given below:
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Analytical Puzzles( Linear arrangements (12 persons facing North and South), Square Arrangement (8 people; people sitting at the corners facing outside and people sitting at the middle facing outside, Distribution (7 people and 7 cities), Days based puzzle and Comparison of heights puzzle) | 20 - 22 |
Deductions (Syllogisms) | 3 - 4 |
Direction Sense | 2 - 3 |
Word Formation | 1 |
Alpha Numeric Series | 5 |
Misc (Ranking etc..) | 2-3 |
English Language:
This section too was predictable and hovered between easy to moderate.
- The lone Reading Comprehension passage on ‘Telecommunications’ was conventional in its presentation, and 6 questions were posed from it.
- There were 5 questions on Phrase Replacement where a sentence with one part in bold font was to be replaced with the correct choice from among the five given.
- There were 5 questions on pairing of clauses to form a grammatically and logically correct sentence.
- The 5 questions on Para Formation had 5 sentences in jumbled order and need to be sequentially arranged to form a meaningful paragraph.
- There were 4 - 5 questions on single blank fillers which were easy to attempt.
- The questions on spell-error correction was presented as a sentence with four words in bold, of which one was erroneously spelt,
We can deduce that about 20 - 22 questions could possibly be solved in the given 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:
Topic | No of Questions | Difficulty Level |
---|---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 6 | Easy |
Para Jumbled Sentences (5 Sentences) | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Phrase Replacement | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Match the following Clauses to form grammatically and logically coherent sentence. | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
Fill in the blanks (Single Blank) | 4 - 5 | Easy |
Spelling | 4 - 5 | Easy |
Over all, the difficulty level of the paper in this particular slot can be pegged between Easy to Moderate.
Good Attempts:
Test Area | Good Attempts |
---|---|
Quantitative Aptitude | 22 - 25 |
Reasoning Ability | 23 - 25 |
English Language | 20 - 22 |
Overall | 65 - 72 |
The SBI Clerk 2018 Prelim exam was held in June 2018. The analysis of the same has been presented below. A sectional time limit was introduced for the first time in Prelim exam.
Snap shot of the Exam:
Test Area | No. of questions | Duration |
---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 35 Questions | 20 Mins |
English Language | 30 Questions | 20 Mins |
Total no. of Questions | 100 Qs | 60 Mins |
Test Area No. of questions Duration Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins
No of choices per question – 5 Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question
Though overall, the exam can be given a moderately easy tag, there were a couple of aspects observed in each of the sections in this year's exam that are worth mentioning. Apart from the fact that the exam was presented with a sectional time limit, thus restricting navigability among sections, there was no uniformity in both the number of questions and question types in each of the sections among any of the slots.
The section wise analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:
Numerical Ability: According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as easy to moderate.
Across all slots, the questions can be classified as simple and doable. Here too, the number of questions and the type of questions were both at variance among all slots. Another novel aspect specific to this section was that questions on two specific areas - Data Sufficiency and Data Comparison - which till last year were considered exclusive areas for the Mains exam, made an appearance here.
Questions on Number series were easy to work out. Individual questions pertained to topics – Profit & Loss, Partnership, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Simple & Compound Interest and Mensuration etc., and these too were elementary.
Since the difficulty level was easy - moderate, candidates would certainly have been able to attempt around 21 - 23 questions within the allocated time limit of 20 minutes, provided if he / she chose judiciously.
Following table depicts the number of questions from various topics, which were asked in this section.
23rd June 2018 | 24th June 2018 | 30th June 2018 | ||||||||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Topic | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 |
Series | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | |
Simplifications | 10 | 7 | 5 | 10 | 5 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 15 | 10 | 5 | 10 |
Approximations | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||
Arithmetic questions | 5 | 13 | 10 | 10 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 10 |
Data Interpretation | 5 | 5 | 5 | 10 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 |
Data Sufficiency | 5 | 5 | 5 | |||||||||
Data Comparison | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | |||||||
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||||
Total | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 |
Reasoning: This section also has been given a 'Moderate' tag.
There were no questions on Deductions. The topic on Sequence drew 5 questions in most of the slots. Questions on Set of numbers ranged from 2 to 5, and were conspicuous by their absence in quite a few slots. Questions based on Blood Relations and Analytical Puzzles were consistent in their presence across all the slots, but their numbers stood variously.
The surprise element in this section apart from the general features stated above, was the appearance of questions on Input-output and Data Sufficiency, both of which otherwise are pet areas of the Mains of this exam, in a couple of slots. Thus, about 18 - 20 questions could possibly have been solved in the 20 minutes assigned to this section.
Following table depicts the number of questions from various topics, which were asked in this section.
23rd June 2018 | 24th June 2018 | 30th June 2018 | ||||||||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Topic | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 |
Blood Relations | 3 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 1 | 3 | 3 | 2 | 3 | 3 |
Direction Sense | 2 | 3 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 3 | 3 | 1 | 3 | 3 | |
Coding-Decoding | 2 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | |||||
Sequence | 5 | 5 | 5 | 2 | 5 | |||||||
Word Formation | 3 | 2 | 2 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 1 | |||||
Symbols & Notations | 2 | 4 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||
Ranking | 2 | 3 | 2 | 2 | ||||||||
Analytical Puzzles | 15 | 15 | 14 | 15 | 20 | 11 | 24 | 14 | 12 | 15 | 15 | 11 |
Set of numbers | 3 | 2 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | |||||
Alphabet series | 2 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||||
Input-Output | 5 | |||||||||||
Data Sufficiency | 3 | 1 | 4 | |||||||||
Set of words | 5 | |||||||||||
Miscellaneous | 1 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 2 | 2 | 3 | |||||
Total | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 | 35 |
English Language :
This section too was along expected lines in terms of difficulty level, and can be given an easy to moderate tag.
As common to most areas of the other two sections this year, questions presented here too were not constant in number and presentation among different slots. Though candidates were tested in all the important areas, the weightage varied as a result of the above mentioned change in the manner of presentation, and this is noteworthy.
Unlike in the recent history of Bank exams, there were no new question types here, nor was any of the convention types tweaked and presented, and this must have surely been a breather for all the test-takers.
Thus, about 18 - 20 questions in the English section could easily have been solved in the given 20 minutes. Following table depicts the number of questions from various topics, which were asked in this section.
23rd June 2018 | 24th June 2018 | 30th June 2018 | ||||||||||
---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Topic | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 | Slot 1 | Slot 2 | Slot 3 | Slot 4 |
Reading Comprehension | 10 | 10 | 10 | 8 | 6 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 6 | 10 | 5 | 7 |
Para Forming Questions | 5 | 5 | 6 | 4 | 5 | 4 | 5 | |||||
FIB | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 6 | 6 | 5 | 7 | ||||
Wrongly spelt words | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||
Error Identification | 5 | 5 | 6 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 8 | 5 | 5 | |||
Phrase Replacement | 5 | 5 | 4 | 5 | 5 | 6 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 6 | ||
Identifying Gramatically correct sentence | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||||
Sentence Rearrangement | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | 5 | ||||||
Total | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 |
Analysis of SBI Clerk Main exam held on 5th August 2018 (Morning Session)
It has been reported that the online SBI Clerk Main examination held on 5th August 2018 (morning session) was moderate to difficult. The Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning sections were the difficult and lengthy ones among all the four. The GA and English Sections were easy to moderate.
A few points worth taking note of:
- More focus on DI and Puzzles;
- New vocab question types in the English section;
- New question type from RCs similar to the one asked in the SBI PO 2018 main exam;
- No questions on Syllogisms;
- No questions on Number Series and Approximations in the Quantitative Aptitude section;
- About 8 to 10 questions on Insurance, Credit and Loans in the GA section;
- Absence of computer questions in the 'Reasoning Ability and Computer Aptitude' section.
The snap shot of the exam is given below.
S.No | Name of Test | No. of Qs | Max Marks |
---|---|---|---|
1 | General / Financial Awareness | 50 | 50 |
2 | General English | 40 | 40 |
3 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 |
4 | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | 50 | 60 |
TOTAL | 190 | 200 |
The analysis of the above mentioned session, as reported by our students, has been given below.
Quantitative Aptitude:
According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as difficult as well as time-consuming.
There were five DI sets. The questions on DI were easy to moderate and were calculation based. There were five questions on Quadratic Comparisons.
Individual questions in this section were based on topics like time and distance, time and work, profit and loss, partnership, plane geometry, mensuration, simple and compound interest and mixtures and alligations. Though not direct questions, they have been acknowledged as tricky ones that would certainly require a thorough and in-depth knowledge of concepts to tide over them. Questions on Data Sufficiency ( 2 statements) were also found space in this test, and can be pegged at a moderate level of difficulty.
Topic | No of Questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation | 25 |
Data Comparisons | 5 |
Individual Questions (Time & Work, Time & Distance, Plane Geometry, Mensuration, Mixtures& Alligations, Profit & Loss, Simple and Compound Interest) | 10 |
Data Sufficiency ( 2 statements) | 5 |
Quadratic Comparisons | 5 |
Reasoning:
Overall this section on the whole has been given a 'difficult' tag.
The emphasis here was on puzzles, which were tough to tackle. There were no questions on deductions (Syllogisms). The questions on Input/output ranged between easy to moderate levels. Data Sufficiency posed moderate and lengthy questions. Questions on Blood Relations were easy.
A new question type based on Coding – Decoding was introduced in this exam, and questions on the same were posed.
Topic | No of Qs |
---|---|
Puzzles (Circular Arrangement, Linear Arrangements(2 rows), Floor Arrangements, Square arrangement, month based etc) | 25 to 30 |
Input Output | 5 |
Coding-Decoding | 4 |
Blood Relations | 3 |
Critical Reasoning | 5 |
English Language:
With the exception of a new pattern of questions presented in vocab and RC areas, this section was along expected lines. There were three RC passages with a total of twelve questions; questions based on passages were moderate in nature.
The new question types related to Vocab were time-consuming though of a moderate level of difficulty. The 5 questions on Para Forming (6 sentences with 1 sentence fixed) were moderate in nature.
The Cloze Test passage and questions therein, that appeared in the exam (as reported by our student) was easy to moderate. The questions on FIB (single blank) were easy. Thus, this section can be pegged between easy to moderate.
Topic | No of Questions | Difficulty Level |
---|---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 12 ( 3 passages) | Moderate |
Para Jumbled Questions (6 statements with 1 sentence fixed) | 5 | Moderate |
Vocab (New Model) | 10 | Easy |
Cloze test | 5 | Easy - Moderate |
FIB (Single Blank) | 5 | Easy |
Idioms & Phrases (???) | 3 | Easy |
General Awareness:
About half of the questions asked here were on Current Affairs while the rest were related to the Insurance sector, Banking etc. Students reported this section as easy to moderate.
The online IBPS RRB Office Assistant Main examination held on 7th Oct 2018, was moderate in terms of difficulty level, according to test takers.
While the Reasoning and English Sections were run-of-the-mill, the Quant section was drawn-out and lengthy. The GA section was ranged between easy and moderate, and the one on Computers was tagged as uncomplicated.
A snap shot of the avove mentioned exam is given below:
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks | Duration |
---|---|---|---|
Numerical Ability | 40 Qs | 50 | 120 Mins |
Reasoning Ability | 40 Qs | 50 | |
English Language | 40 Qs | 40 | |
General Awareness | 40 Qs | 40 | |
Computer Knowledge | 40 Qs | 20 | |
Total | 200 | 200 |
An analysis of the above stated session, as reported by our students, is being presented for you below.
Quantitative Aptitude:
This section, though overall moderate, can be termed tedious.
The questions on DI were long-winded and time-consuming. Individual questions in this section were related to topics like Ratio, Time & Distance, Mensuration, Mixtures and Alligation, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Simple & Compound Interest, Numbers etc. Most of these questions were reportedly tricky and required a thorough knowledge of concepts to work them out. The 5 questions on Data Sufficiency were moderately difficult and hence, doable.
Test Area | No. of questions |
---|---|
Data Interpretation (Table(Missing Data), Line Graph, 2 Pie Charts & Caselet) | 20 |
Individual Questions (Ratio, Time & Work, Time & Distance, Mensuration, Averages, Mixtures & Alligation, Percentages, Profit & Loss, Partnership, Probability) | 15 |
Data Sufficiency (2 Statements) | 5 |
Reasoning Ability:
This section can be tagged as moderate, a gauged from feedback received by our students.
The emphasis here was on puzzles, which were challenging. The Data Sufficiency topic posed questions which were also not of a very difficult nature.
Test Area | No. of questions | Max Marks |
---|---|---|
Puzzles (2 Row Arrangement with numbers, Circular Arrangement + Distribution with 6 persons, Distribution with 9 people, dates and months, Distribution + Comparisons, Floor Arrangement) | 25 | Moderate |
Input - Output | 1 | Easy |
Blood Relations | 2 | Easy to Moderate |
Direction Sense (with 2 different persons) | 4 | Moderate |
Data Sufficiency ( 2 Statements) | 5 | Moderate |
Deductions | 1 | Easy |
Coding – Decoding | 1 | Easy |
Word Formation | 1 | Easy |
English Language:
This section ranged between easy to moderate in terms of difficulty level. There was just one RC passage from which ten questions were asked. Vocabulary related synonym and antonym questions were two in number, but the surprise element thrown here was in the form of a single blank in some part of the passage. Candidates were expected to fill the gap with a suitable word from among the choices given. The Cloze passage comprised 8 blanks. There were 5 single blank questions Fill in the blank questions, and 5 on Para Formation. A total of ten questions were based on Error Identification type, of which 5 were the commonly asked conventional ones, while the other 5 were tweaked and made to appear like new. One sentence with four words in bold was given, and the aspirant was expected to pick the contextually inappropriate word from among them. This was similar to the pattetrn of questions observed in the RRB PO Main Exam 2018.
Test Area | No. of questions |
---|---|
Reading Comprehension | 10 |
Fill in the blanks (one sentence with one blank) | 5 |
Cloze Test | 8 |
Para Forming Questions | 5 |
Error Identification (five conventional types and five related to word usage) | 10 |
Miscellaneous | 2 |
General Awareness:
As reported by our students, about 60 % – 70 % of the questions asked here were typically drawn from topics related to Current Affairs and Banking Awareness. There were a few questions on Static GK as well.
Computer Knowledge:
Questions in this section were easy and revolved around Acronyms, MS Office, Networking, Operating System, Internet, Computer Architecture etc.